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I got this expression by considering the voltage at the inverting input of the amplifier is 0V.Going with the idea that both amplifiers are voltage amplifiers with known output resistance, and seeing that they want the open loop calculation (not the closed loop calculation) we have the following equation for the feedback voltage Vfb:
Vfb=(Ga*Gp*Vref*Z)/((Cpar*Roa*s+1)*(Z+Ro))*(R1/(R1+R2))
Hi.
I got this expression by considering the voltage at the inverting input of the amplifier is 0V.
But why should we do that? Why don't we directly calculate closed loop gain?
1. I don't understand this? Why we can leave Ro out as it goes to Vin?Why Ro is left out might be because it goes to Vin.
Steve:
That sounds interesting too. I bought some of these not because i really needed the LDO so badly but because they were reasonably priced and have the input range i needed and the accuracy over temperature (automotive application). I'm quite sure these are the PNP variety which makes them inherently unstable. That's what i was hoping to look into more at some point.
Sometimes you can leave values out if they don't affect the answer very much. If Ro is large enough, it can be neglected. You have to look at the values to see if the approximation is valid.1. I don't understand this? Why we can leave Ro out as it goes to Vin?
2. I just don't understand why we use the open-loop instead of closed-loop here. The circuit is actually in closed-loop. What is the purpose of open loop analysis?
I don't understand this question. Can you elaborate?3. Why in the open loop analysis the inverting voltage of the amplifier is zero?
With question 3. Here is part of the article that I can't get:
For the AC analysis proposed, the feedback loop can be broken at point A in figure, assuming an infinitely large inductor as inserted at this point, which allows ”break” the AC contribution for the feedback loop.
With an infinitely large inductor inserted at the point A, in AC condition, what is the voltage at the inverting of the amplifier?
I think it is floating. However, from the calculation Vfb/Vref I see that it must be 0V to get the right expression.
There are a couple of different topologies one can imagine here, but the trick is to get enough gain from the transistors and to provide the proper bias voltages for the proper transistor operation. Also, the feedback must be negative, which forces some constraints. In the end, I found this topology good, but there may have been a two transistor arrangement that could work. I can't remember for sure now. You can see that the first transistor on the opamp does not provide current gain, but just provides the current drive for the transconductance gain. However, the two other transistors are providing quite a bit of the loop gain, with each contributing the transistor beta to the loop gain. The thing about the transistor gains is that they will eventually roll off at high frequency, and two of them will contribute 180 degree phase shift with greater than unity gain, and will thus jeopardize stability. Hence a stabilization is provided by the compensation cap on the the opamp circuit. The pole introduced here causes the high gain to roll off at lower frequency and generates adequate phase margin for loop stability.That's an interesting circuit too. My only question would be why three transistors. Did that result in some better stability or something?
The way to think about it is to assume that there is an input source driving V-. Your second reference does this, but for some reason your first reference traces back to Vref, which I don't understand. The open loop response is supposed to break the loop and it considers the start of the break as an input and the end of the break as an output. So, it's not floating, and it's not 0V. It is an arbitrary voltage coming from a hypothetical voltage source.
Then, the voltage at the inverting input is V- which is not clear what value it is. However, from the way the expression Vref/Vfb is derived, I see that V- is assuming to be
0V there.
If so, is the result still valid? I means that the author calculated that expression only for a special case (V- =0) and use that result to draw properties about the circuit.
Is that considered correct?
I have read that the we need to put a buffer at the output of the error amplifier to ensure the circuit stable. Could you explain a bit?
(Or maybe some links explaining why)