M MrAl Well-Known Member Most Helpful Member May 15, 2011 #41 RITESH KAKKAR said: HI Sir, You are giving good example, but for me it will be better if you have a small images showing this property in real world, it will be far better.... Thanks very much..!! Click to expand... Here's a drawing of a sine wave (red) and a delayed sine wave (blue). Note the blue one is zero for 0.25 seconds because the delay factor for that wave is 0.25. Attachments DelayedSine-01.gif 10.6 KB · Views: 486
RITESH KAKKAR said: HI Sir, You are giving good example, but for me it will be better if you have a small images showing this property in real world, it will be far better.... Thanks very much..!! Click to expand... Here's a drawing of a sine wave (red) and a delayed sine wave (blue). Note the blue one is zero for 0.25 seconds because the delay factor for that wave is 0.25.
koolguy Active Member May 15, 2011 #42 I think this is in time domain, if we considered i\t freq. or e^-jwt how it will be shown?? Thanks.
M MrAl Well-Known Member Most Helpful Member May 16, 2011 #43 Hi again, Is this what you wanted to see? Attachments emjwT.gif 12.5 KB · Views: 470
koolguy Active Member May 16, 2011 #44 From where you got this,that mean in freq. domain the freq. rise by to??
M MrAl Well-Known Member Most Helpful Member May 17, 2011 #45 Hello, Not sure what you are asking. The table came from a book, "Engineering Circuit Analysis".
koolguy Active Member May 17, 2011 #46 Its simple as in time domain, the signal is shifted in t sec. ,but-in freq. shifted upward only ,why ??
Its simple as in time domain, the signal is shifted in t sec. ,but-in freq. shifted upward only ,why ??
koolguy Active Member May 17, 2011 #48 Hello Sir, I have shown in this image..... Attachments 12.gif 16.2 KB · Views: 452
birdman0_o Active Member May 17, 2011 #49 The Fourier transform of the delta function is the unit step. There is no "shifting upward" going on.
The Fourier transform of the delta function is the unit step. There is no "shifting upward" going on.
M MrAl Well-Known Member Most Helpful Member May 17, 2011 #50 RITESH KAKKAR said: Hello Sir, I have shown in this image..... Click to expand... That's because the amplitude of e^-jwt0 is 1 regardless of what w is.
RITESH KAKKAR said: Hello Sir, I have shown in this image..... Click to expand... That's because the amplitude of e^-jwt0 is 1 regardless of what w is.
birdman0_o Active Member May 18, 2011 #52 Convolution in the time domain is just multiplication in the frequency domain. If you don't make any effort next time I won't answer any more.
Convolution in the time domain is just multiplication in the frequency domain. If you don't make any effort next time I won't answer any more.
koolguy Active Member May 26, 2011 #53 A special thanks To MR AL. for the help & other member my exam of it is over so, no more discussion on it.............. The End.....................!!
A special thanks To MR AL. for the help & other member my exam of it is over so, no more discussion on it.............. The End.....................!!
koolguy Active Member May 26, 2011 #55 I hope you did well on it Click to expand... It was fine not so well, because my course was not completed..
I hope you did well on it Click to expand... It was fine not so well, because my course was not completed..