But he claims the vector is the result of averaging. The length of such an average vector is not the same as the radius.
This small average velocity serves to change the number of molecules in a unit volume resulting in the compressions and rarefactions.
Unless it's important at this juncture, for a conceptual understanding, I don't want to get the thread too balled up in the numbers and calculations. As, Kenny Rogers sang..."There'll be time enough for counting when the dealing's done".
At this point, is the basic premise that the speed of sound is directly related to the speed of the molecules and that it can be calculated by their temperature and vectors (though apparently, not by direct averaging or summation...but, related)?
Can it be said that if there is a small bias impressed on the molecules by some source of sound energy, that it is added to the much larger movement, due to heat, that the sound energy will be propagated from molecule to molecule with a nominal average speed of Mach 1 (when the math is done correctly), because the molecules themselves are moving at that speed?
Sorry, kids...but, when you're a math moron like me, we can't just skim over big blocks of concept with equations and formulas. We need the blanks filled in.
There are probably some mathematical gyrations that show that there are variations to skew what seems like a pretty obvious answer. I recall reading something once that it's been proven (mathematically) that 2+2≠4.
This is a point where we have a substantial conceptual difference of what's happening. You have the actual air molecules "oscillating" with resulting compressions and rarefactions. I think about it completely differently.
The molecules that have encountered the piston, return to the random mix of molecules but, carrying the energy bias. As they collide with other molecules, they carry that bias away from the piston at Mach 1.
am talking about the bulk motion that results when you average the random motions of literally millions of molecules.
Yes, but why does this small bias (to use your terminology) move at Mach 1? That is the question.
Whether it's one molecule or millions (billions or trillions) I don't see them oscillating. Just picking up that energy bias and moving outward. And then reconverting that energy bias to some receptor, as a copy of the original...minus losses and smearing, at another location.
I am not saying that individual molecules oscillate. Individual molecules undergo random motion, zig zag paths if you will. I am talking about the bulk motion that results when you average the random motions of literally millions of molecules.
I'm thinking the reason the bias (to use my term) moves at mach 1 is essentially what's shown in my graphical example. The disturbance rides on the molecules that are moving at 1100 mph and the bias moves at the appropriate percentage of that (you mention the rms value...is that it?).
More of a question in my mind is why, if they are riding on randomly moving molecules, do they propagate only away from the point of disturbance? I do feel like I have a sense of this (I should go find the post I wrote about it for additional review of the concept).
crashsite said:So, there is no "oscillation" (at least not in the sense of some wavelike action of compression and rarefaaction). Instead there is a very slight, near instantaneous energy bias impressed on the molecules at the interface of the piston. As the affected molecules collide with other air molecules, that bias gets moved along from molecule to molecule..
You impose your interpretation on subjects rather that investigating what the author intended. You are very quick to do this. You seem to have a need to prove others wrong and yourself right.
Why don't you define bias. It seems to be a slippery term that can mean different things at different times.
I may have missed it, but at this point I don't know what you believe to be propagating.
What precisely is propagating? Until you define that this is just hand waving.
A speaker cone periodically sends out a pulse of energy. We agree on that.
I'm not sure we agree on that. Integrated over enough time, I guess you could say that it's true. But, when integrated over that much time it's at a scale that has nothing to do with the propagation of sound.
If we ever worked it from little to big or big to little I think we would see that.
But it makes a lot of sense to start with the large.
Okay, that sounds like a good plan. The floor is yours. The topic is, "How does sound propagate?".
The following link is a power point slide set for a UCSD physics lecture. Math is described to quantify as needed but there are also abundant diagrams to illustrate what is happening. If you can not or choose not to follow the math the pictures provide a nice trail of logic.
Keep in mind that this is a level one sort of thing and we will what and maybe some how but not a lot of why.
https://www.physics.ucsd.edu/~tmurphy/phys8/lectures/10_sound.ppt
If you object the content of a slide mention it's name and what you do not agree with. It that happens on slide one we will start there.
I would like to start with the slide "What is Sound"That presentation agrees pretty much down the line with the Wiki descriptions. We can ignore the first panel (cover page) and slides from
So you are still totally against the idea of waves then?
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